As I have read that "time varying electric field is source of changing magnetic field and time varying magnetic field is source of changing electric field "
Hence, I have the following doubt : If time varying nature of one field originates other changing field. Then, why are they in phase?
One is changing and producing the second thing hence second must depend upon first's derivative, I. e. If one is sine then second will be cosine Hence a phase difference of pi/2 and not in phase. Where am I wrong?