One or two sets of notes (one of them by Timo Weigand) on QFT that I have come across state explicitly that a finite lorentz transformation for 4-vectors can be written in terms of the generators $J^{\rho\sigma}$ as:
$$\Lambda^{\mu}_{\,\nu}(\Omega)=\lim_{N\rightarrow \infty}(\delta^{\mu}_{\,\nu}-\frac{i}{2N}\Omega_{\rho\sigma}(J^{\rho\sigma})^{\mu}_{\,\nu})^{N}=\exp{(-\frac{i}{2}\Omega_{\rho\sigma}(J^{\rho\sigma}))^{\mu}_{\,\nu}}$$
Now, my question is that, isn't it required of the generators of a Lie group to commute(or equivalently for the group to be abelian) in order to be able to represent it as an exponential of its generators in the finite case? This follows from the condition that $e^{A+B}=e^{A}e^{B}$ only when $[A,B]=0$ (in this case, aren't we simply constructing the finite exponential by multiplying the infinitesimal exponential terms together and then assuming that the generators commute?). If so, than why can the above be written in the way it is given that the generators(J) do not commute. What am I missing?