The derivation of the Navier-Stokes equation presupposes that the pressure, $p$, and velocity, $u_i$, are infinitely differentiable, so that the forces in each face of the fluid element can be represented with a Taylor series (dropping $O((\delta x_i)^2)$ terms):
After applying Newton's second law, and accounting for the contributions of viscous forces, body forces, and inetrial forces, the incompressible Navier-Stokes equations are found to be:
\begin{equation}\tag{1}{\partial_t u_i + u_j\partial_ju_i = -{1 \over \rho}\partial_ip +} \nu \partial_{jj}u_i +g_i\end{equation}
In the study of turbulence it is common to use the Reynolds decomposition which splits the flow variables into the mean and fluctuating quantities, that is $$u = U + u'$$ and after applying this decomposition, the Navier Stokes are linearized.
I have been thinking about the validity of equation (1) in the prediction of turbulent motion and I arrived at the following hypothesis: Equation (1) is NOT adequate to predict turbulent flow. The reason for this is that the plot of any turbulent flow variable looks like:
which is clearly non-differentiable in each of its kinks, thus the basic assumption of $p,V_i\in C^\infty$ for the Taylor expansion is violated. Of course the TS is applied to the fluid element in space, and the plot on the right is w.r.t. time. However, there are also kinks in the plot of $V_{turb}$ vs $x$ on the left.
Of course my argument must be erroneous since these equations have been extensively studied for decades and it would be already known if they were incorrect for turbulence. Hence I post this question here, so that someone can clarify me where is my mistake. Thanks.