I for the first time learnt there exist projective representation of symmetry group in Weinberg's QFT vol1. In Weinberg's textbook, the definition of symmetry of a system is that a symmetry is a bijection of Hilbert space such that for any normalized states $|\Psi\rangle$, $|\Phi\rangle$ and the mapped states $|\Psi'\rangle$, $|\Phi'\rangle$ $$|\langle \Psi|\Phi\rangle| = |\langle \Psi'|\Phi'\rangle|.$$
With this definition, we see symmetry group of the system admits a projective representation: $$U(T_2)U(T_1)=e^{i\phi(T_2,T_1)}U(T_2T_1).$$
For example, spin-$1/2$ is a projective representation of $SO(3)$ group. I want to consider whether there are other symmetry except internal symmetry which can occur projective representation in a system, but I can't construct one.
In quantum mechanics, the definition of a symmetry $S$ is a operator which commutes with Hamitonian $H$, i.e $$[S,H]=0.$$ Then we see in the eigenenergy $E_i$ subspace, $$H\psi^i_\mu=E_i \psi^i_\mu$$ with $\mu=1,2,\cdots,f_i$. That is the eigenspace of energy $E_i$ with dimension $f_i$. $$HS\psi^i_\mu=SH\psi^i_\mu=E_i S\psi^i_\mu.$$ So $S\psi^i_\mu$ still have the same energy $E_i$ and it must can be expanded by $\psi^i_\nu$ with $\nu=1,2,\cdots,f_i$. Define the expansion coefficients as $D^i_{\nu\mu}(S)$, $$S\psi^i_\mu= \sum_\nu D^i_{\nu\mu}(S)\psi^i_\nu$$ For any two symmetries $R,S$ with $[R,H]=0=[S,H]$, then $RS\equiv Q$ as a whole must be a symmetry because $[RS,H]=[R,H]S+R[S,H]=0$.
On the one hand, $$RS\psi^i_\nu=R\sum_\mu D^i_{\mu\nu}(S)\psi^i_\mu =\sum_{\mu\gamma}D^i_{\mu\nu}(S) D^i_{\gamma \mu}(R)\psi^i_\gamma= \sum_{\mu\gamma} D^i_{\gamma \mu}(R)D^i_{\mu\nu}(S)\psi^i_\gamma$$ On the other hand, $$RS\psi^i_\nu=Q \psi^i_\nu=\sum_\gamma D^{i}_{\gamma\nu}(Q)\psi^i_\gamma==\sum_\gamma D^{i}_{\gamma\nu}(RS)\psi^i_\gamma. $$ So $$D^i(RS)=D^i(R)D^i(S).$$
That is we can only get the representation of symmetry group other than the projective representation.
My question:
Does it mean only representation of symmetry group can occur in quantum system? According to above derivation, if it's true, what's the meaning to discuss the projective representation?
If the answer of 1st question is No. What's the loophole in my arguement. And except the case of spin half integer under rotation (or Lorentz group, Poincare group), give me a concrete example projective representation of symmetry group can occur?