Does Newton's First Law depend on the object having mass? According to 
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newton%27s_laws_of_motion
Newton's First Law of motion is
In an inertial reference frame, an object either remains at rest or continues to move at a constant velocity, unless acted upon by a force.
My question is: Does Newton's First Law depend on the object having mass?
In the statement of the law mass is not mentioned.  Also if it has mass, as its mass tends to zero it would seem that the law would hold for each value of mass no matter how close to zero. Then why would it not hold in the limit for zero mass? 
Another statement of the law from
http://www.physicsclassroom.com/class/newtlaws/Lesson-1/Newton-s-First-Law
is:
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
Again mass is not mentioned. It seems to me that, theoretically, the law should hold for zero mass.  {I am talking about a hypothetical zero mass object in a Newtonian framework--not a real world object}  For the most part the term 'momentum' could be substituted for 'mass' here.
 A: You should first understand what is the speciality of Newton's first law. You should know that the first law can be derived from the second law. Then why did Newton give the first law at all? The reason is that, first law defines the reference frames in which the second law can act. From the statement of the first law, it is clearly understood that Newton has spoken of inertial reference frames as the frames of reference in which his second law can act, though he didn't speak of reference frames directly, as there was no notion of reference frames in his time.
None of Newton's laws are applicable in case mass is 0. If mass itself is 0, then the concept of Inertia doesn't arise, as a result of which the frame no longer remains inertial. Moreover, $F=\dfrac {dp}{dt} $ itself doesn't hold for zero mass, as the acceleration becomes undefined. As a result, if the universal second law is itself not applicable, then there is no question of applicability of the other laws.
It may be noted here that $m$ may $ \rightarrow 0$ but can never be $=0$.
