Why do the Michelson-Morley (1887) & Michelson-Gale (1925) experiments both measure non-zero fringe shifts?

As I mentioned in "Why is the Michelson-Morley experiment considered a null-result?", the 1887 Michelson-Morley experiment placed an upper bound on the fringe displacement of about 0.01 or 0.02. Why did the 1925 Michelson-Gale experiment find a fringe shift of about 0.230±0.005?

Here's the distribution of the results of the Michelson-Gale experiment:

The Michelson-Morley experiment was intended to measure the motion of the earth through the ether, and the Michelson-Gale experiment was intended to measure earth's rotation, but what exactly are the differences in the setup between these two experiments, that they produce different non-zero fringe shifts?

• Well first off, the MGX measured a shift of 0.2, not 0.02. Moreover, the MMX measured 0 +/- 0.02, the MGX measured 0.2 +/- 0.016 Those are not similar result sets! Nor should they be, they were measuring different things. Commented Apr 4, 2018 at 18:33

$$\Delta = \frac{4A}{\lambda c}\Omega\sin \theta,$$
where $\theta$ is the latitude, $\Omega$ the angular speed of the Earth, $\lambda$ the wavelength, and $A$ is the area of the rectangle. There are actually two rectangles in the Michelson-Gale experiment, a large one and a small one but this is just an experimental detail: the fringe shift for the smaller one is too small to be measured and the central interference fringe for that smaller rectangle is used as the reference point for the fringe shift for the bigger rectangle, for which the formula above holds.