Suppose a force F1 was required to accelerate a particle from rest to a velocity v.The force F1 is then replaced by F2 which decelerates it to rest.Now my question is whether F1 is equal to F2 or not?
I think that F1 must not be equal to F2.From F=ma the acceleration gained by the particle must be made equal to zero in order to bring it to rest.
Hence it will require an acceleration in the opposite direction of the same magnitude i.e deceleration.Hence the negative sign of a must be used for F2.
Since force is a vector both magnitude and direction must be same for F1 and F2 to be equal.But I don't know if my reasoning or my answer is correct.