I need a little hand here. My professor left me as homework to study the chapter VII of the Ref. [1]. Everything was going well until the section "Particle with spin". In Eq.(7.1), is given the asymptotic wave function of the system composed by a pair of particles with spin 0 and 1/2 respectively as
$$ \psi \approx e^{ikz}\left\vert \alpha \right\rangle +F\left( \theta ,\phi \right) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}\left\vert \alpha \right\rangle $$
where $\left\vert \alpha \right\rangle$ is initial state of the spin 1/2 particle an $F\left( \theta ,\phi\right)$ the scattering amplitude, given by a 2x2 matrix in this representation. In the case involving spinless particles, the scattering amplitude is a simple function of the angular coordinates, naturally appearing whit the solution of the Schrodinger equation. Concerning of this, I have some questions:
What is the differences in the approach that makes the scattering amplitude to be a matrix?
There would exists influence of the spin in the scattering even when the Hamiltonian don't depends on it?
How can I prove that the differential cross section would be $\frac{d\sigma }{d\Omega }=\left\vert \left\langle \left. \beta \right. \left\vert F\left( \theta ,\phi \right) \right\vert \left. \alpha \right. \right\rangle \right\vert ^{2}$ (with $\left\vert \beta \right\rangle $ being the observed spin state) instead of $\frac{d\sigma }{d\Omega }=\left\vert f\left( \theta ,\phi \right) \right\vert ^{2}$ ?
Someone can help me with this? Thanks in advance
[1] Omnes, Roland. "INTRODUCTION TO PARTICLE PHYSICS." (1971).