0
$\begingroup$

We know that in lorentz transformation , x'= lorentz factor*(x-vt) Suppose, that in unprimed frame , x=0 ; and the primed frame moves with velocity c wrt unprimed one. Then accor to the transformation, x'=-(infinite), as lorentz factor is infinite. But how can infinite distance be traversed by the primed frame with respect to the unprimed frame at a finite time?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

First of all, the Lorentz transformation $x'=\gamma (x-vt)$ is not for distances, but for single events. Here $x'$ represents the position where some event occurs in the moving frame and approaches $\infty$. This isn't really possible because it would take an infinite amount of energy to accelerate an object with mass to $c$ which is why the $v=c$ frame does not exist.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ But what if we take the primed frame as light itself? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 13, 2017 at 18:47
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @Syed, according to SR, there is no inertial reference frame for light, light has speed c in all inertial reference frames, there is no rest frame for light, there is no inertial reference frame with relative speed c. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 14, 2017 at 1:20

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.