In the textbook Understanding Molecular Simulation by Frenkel and Smit (Second Edition), the authors represent a function $f(\textbf{r})$ (which depends on the coordinates of a periodic system) as a Fourier series. I quote from page 295 of the text:
Let us consider a periodic system with a cubic box of length $L$ and volume $V$. Any function $f(\textbf{r})$ that depends on the coordinates of our system can be represented by a Fourier series:
$$f(\textbf{r}) = \frac{1}{V} \sum_{\boldsymbol{\ell} = -\infty}^{\infty} \tilde{f}(\textbf{k}) e^{i \textbf{k} \cdot \textbf{r}} \; \; \; \; \textbf{(12.1.6)}$$
where $\textbf{k} = \frac{2\pi}{L}\boldsymbol{\ell}$ with $\boldsymbol{\ell} = (\ell_x, \ell_y, \ell_z)$ are the lattice vectors in Fourier space. The Fourier coefficients $\tilde{f}(\textbf{k})$ are calculated using
$$\tilde{f}(\textbf{k}) = \int_V d\textbf{r} \; f(\textbf{r}) e^{-i\textbf{k} \cdot \textbf{r}} \; \; \; \; \textbf{(12.1.7)}$$
Now, the authors use equation (12.1.6) to write the electric potential $\phi(\textbf{r})$ in Fourier space:
$$\phi(\textbf{r}) = \frac{1}{V} \sum_{\textbf{k}} \tilde{\phi}(\textbf{k}) e^{i\textbf{k} \cdot \textbf{r}}$$
The authors write:
In Fourier space, Poisson's equation has a much simpler form. We can write for the Poisson equation:
$$-\nabla^2 \phi(\textbf{r}) = -\nabla^2 \left( \frac{1}{V} \sum_{\textbf{k}} \tilde{\phi}(\textbf{k}) e^{i\textbf{k} \cdot \textbf{r}} \right) = \frac{1}{V} \sum_{\textbf{k}} k^2 \tilde{\phi}(\textbf{k}) e^{i\textbf{k} \cdot \textbf{r}} \; \; \; \; \textbf{(12.1.8)}$$
My question is, why is the $\frac{1}{V}$ factor present in equations (12.1.6) and (12.1.8)? What is the significance of the $\frac{1}{V}$ factor in $\phi(\textbf{r}) = \frac{1}{V} \sum_{\textbf{k}} \tilde{\phi}(\textbf{k}) e^{i\textbf{k} \cdot \textbf{r}}$?
In contrast, the article on Wikipedia does not include this prefactor. I realize that that article is dealing with the general case, whereas here we are considering a system with a cubic box of volume $V$. But shouldn't the units of $\phi(\textbf{r})$ be the same as those of $\tilde{\phi}(\textbf{k})$? The $\frac{1}{V}$ seems to preclude $\phi(\textbf{r})$ and $\tilde{\phi}(\textbf{k})$ having the same units.
Do you have any advice? Thanks.