Suppose we have a rigid uniform bar AB of length L slipping from its vertical position on a frictionless floor. At a certain instant of time the angle made by the bar with the vertical is $\theta$. Now, looking from ground frame is it logically correct to say that the instantaneous torque about point B is $mg\frac{L}{2}\sin(\theta)$?
However, some people told me that to find toque about $B$ we need to consider torque due to the pseudo force acting at the COM of the rod as well. But, I believe that torque due to pseudo force should not be included when just asked for toque about B. We should take only toque due to the real force $mg$ as the acceleration terms are anyway taken care while writing the equations of rotational motion. Any suggestions? This is perhaps just a terminology/semantics problem?