Everything I have to say here pertains to coordinate bases with an associated metric.
I started to say that this is an incorrect statement:
$$\partial^\mu = g^{\mu \nu} \partial_{\nu},$$
but then realized it does have a valid interpretation. Just not one that typically occurs in the context of differential forms. See the end of this post.
This is correct:
$$dx^\mu =g^{\mu \nu} \partial_{\nu}.$$
The substitutions suggested in the original question are, in fact valid (without the hats):
$$e_\mu \rightarrow \partial_\mu,$$
$$e^\mu \rightarrow dx^\mu.$$
They may even be taken as definitions.
I only use hats to indicate orthonormal bases. At a minimum, the hats will indicate unit basis vectors. In curvilinear coordinates such a basis will not, in general be a coordinate basis. A distinction worth understanding.
Raising and lowering indices on basis vectors and 1-forms is legitimate. It's just a matter of associating the contraction of the metric with the basis vector or 1-form, rather than with the vector components:
$$\mathfrak{v}=v^{i}\mathfrak{e}_{i}=v_{i}\mathfrak{e}^{i}=\left(v^{i}g_{ij}\right)\mathfrak{e}^{j}=v^{i}\left(g_{ij}\mathfrak{e}^{j}\right),$$
etc. So
$$v_{j}=v^{i}g_{ij},$$
and
$$\mathfrak{e}_{i}=g_{ij}\mathfrak{e}^{j}.$$
If you don't like to call the contravariant basis vectors, "vectors", then call them "basis 1-forms".
From there, it's just a matter of applying the established definitions. If you lower the index on a basis 1-form (AKA contravariant basis vector) it becomes a (covariant) basis vector, and is therefore identified with a directional derivative. The directional derivative along a (covariant) basis vector is a partial derivative.
In the language of differential forms, $dx^{i}$ is the (location dependent) projection mapping of vectors onto the coordinate direction indicated by $i$:
$$\left\langle dx^{i},\mathfrak{v}\right\rangle =\mathfrak{e}^{i}\cdot\mathfrak{v}=v^{b}\mathfrak{e}_{b}\cdot\mathfrak{e}^{i}=v^{i}.$$
So a basis vector (1-form) with a raised index is to be interpreted as such a projection mapping. In other words,
$$\partial_{i}\equiv\mathfrak{e}_{i},$$
$$g^{ij}\mathfrak{e}_{i}=\mathfrak{e}^{j},$$
$$\mathfrak{e}^{j}\equiv dx^{j},$$
$$g^{ij}\partial_{i}=dx^{j},$$
On an orthonormal basis, we sometimes write
$$\partial^{i}\equiv\delta^{ij}\partial_{j}=\partial_{i}.$$
At first I thought that $\partial^\mu = g^{\mu \nu} \partial_{\nu}$ would amount to mathematical gibberish. But I then realized that it does have a valid interpretation. Every linearly independent spanning basis at a point in our manifold has a corresponding dual basis, which the differential form school calls a 1-form basis. But in the dual vector basis school, this is just another coordinate basis spanning the tangent space, and there is an associated coordinate system. $\partial^\mu = g^{\mu \nu} \partial_{\nu}$ is the partial derivative operator along the contravariant basis vectors.
Regardless of whether the differential forms school admits that contravariant basis vectors and dual basis 1-forms are identical, both exist. There are, therefore, contravariant basis vectors which can be mapped uniquely to directional derivatives.
Now, the question becomes, can the projection mappings $dx^i$ be shown to mean the same thing as $\partial^i$? I doubt it.
But we could just as well invert the relationship between contravariant and covariant vectors, so that what we originally call "covariant basis vectors" become our new basis 1-forms and vice versa.