# Is the wave function collapse and the collapse of a superposition related?

It seems that they are two different types of collapses within quantum mechanics. But are they somehow related, or is it two completely different collapses? Sorry if the answer is obvious, and I have not done enough research, but i cannot find a place on the internet which this is stated.

In standard quantum mechanics wavefunction is said to collapse exactly because we don't observe superposition of states as a result of our measurement. For example, if we have the state $$|\Psi\rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|\uparrow\rangle+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|\downarrow\rangle$$ where $|\uparrow\rangle, |\downarrow\rangle$ are eigenstates of pauli spin operator $\sigma_z$ then, the measurement of $\sigma_z$ will result in $|\uparrow\rangle$ with a probability $\frac{1}{2}$ and $|\downarrow\rangle$ with a probability $\frac{1}{2}$ but not both.
Hence, measurement "collapases" the superposition/wavefunction to either $|\uparrow\rangle$ or $|\downarrow\rangle$.