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I know that all charged objects attract neutral objects, but, for example, would an object with half of its electrons removed attract an object with one or two electrons removed?

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  • $\begingroup$ Except for one special condition spheres can be made to attract if they are close enough to one another. rspa.royalsocietypublishing.org/content/royprsa/468/2145/… $\endgroup$
    – Farcher
    May 17 '17 at 15:41
  • $\begingroup$ sounds interesting but could you explain? $\endgroup$ May 17 '17 at 16:08
  • $\begingroup$ The very last sentence of the abstract states that opposite sign charges are induced on one of the spheres and so there is a net attractive force because the attractive forces between opposite charges are larger than the repulsive forces between same charges. $\endgroup$
    – Farcher
    May 17 '17 at 16:29
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No, because force between two charges is $Kq_1q_2/r^2$, with $K>0$. When this quantity is negative, the force is attractive; when it is positive, it will be repulsive. So, as you can see, the attractive/repulsive nature o force depends on the nature of charge and not the magnitude. So, two positive charges will always repell each other.

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    $\begingroup$ What if Kq1q2/r^2 is zero? $\endgroup$ May 17 '17 at 15:16
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    $\begingroup$ Coulomb's law is applicable for point charges. This is not the complete answer. @Jeromium294 raised a fair point. How would you explain that an uncharged body is attracted by a charged one. $\endgroup$
    – Mitchell
    May 17 '17 at 15:19
  • $\begingroup$ If it is zero, then that means one of the particles is uncharged. Thus, the formula says that the force would be zero between them, which is as expected! $\endgroup$ Feb 22 '18 at 15:05

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