Current in the primary coil generates a magnetic flux around the coil (affecting the low reluctance magnetic core, and also the secondary coil).
Knowing that the emf (or current) is induced in the 2nd coil is in antiphase with the current in the primary coil, my question is why isnt the emf/current induced in the magnetic core in antiphase with the one in the primary coil?
If it is induced by a smaller than proportional amount than that in the secondary coil, that is the eddy current; why is it in phase with the current in the primary coil while that current induced in the secondary coil is in antiphase with the primary coil?