1
$\begingroup$

Having defined the phase space distribution function $f(\textbf{r},\textbf{p},t)$ in $\mu-$space, one can express the information that there are $N$ particles in the volume $V$ through the condition \begin{equation} \int f(\textbf{r},\textbf{p},t) d^3\textbf{r}d^3\textbf{p}=N \end{equation} as given in, for example, Kerson Huang, Statistical mechanics, second edition, Sec. 3.1, Eq. 3.4).

In equilibrium, the distribution function is independent of $t$ so that \begin{equation}\int f(\textbf{r},\textbf{p}) d^3\textbf{r}d^3\textbf{p}=N. \end{equation} If the particles are uniformly distributed in space, so that $f$ is independent of $\textbf{r}$, then the number density is given by \begin{equation} n=\frac{N}{V}=\int d^3\textbf{p}f(\textbf{p}) \end{equation}

  1. The expression for number density as given in Cosmology book by Kolb and Turner, they have an extra factor of $\frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}$: \begin{equation} n=\frac{N}{V}=\frac{g}{(2\pi)^3}\int d^3\textbf{p}f(\textbf{p}) \end{equation} where $g$ counts the number of internal degrees of freedom. But where does the factor $\frac{1}{(2\pi)^3}$ come from? Why is this factor missing in Huang's expression for number density?

  2. Kolb and Turner also writes an expression for the pressure for the relativistic particles satisfying $E^2=|\textbf{p}|^2+m^2$ (units in which $c=1$) in equilibrium as $$p=\frac{g}{(2\pi)^3}\int \frac{|\textbf{p}|^2}{3E}f(\textbf{p})d^3\textbf{p}.$$ What should the starting point in deriving this formula for pressure? In other words, what is the general formula for equilibrium pressure?

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ This also has to do with how you do the Fourier transformation. $\endgroup$
    – Louis Yang
    Commented Jun 22, 2017 at 1:10

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$
  1. The extra factor of $\frac{1}{(2 \pi)^3}$ just comes from a different convention for the normalization of $f({\bf p}, {\bf r})$. The one in Kolb & Turner corresponds to Fermi-Dirac and Bose-Einstein distributions on the form: $$f({\bf p}) = \frac{1}{e^{(E({\bf p})-\mu)/T} \pm 1}.\tag{1}$$

  2. In general the energy-momentum tensor is given by: $$T^{\mu\nu} = \frac{g}{(2\pi)^3} \int d^3{\bf p} \frac{P^\mu P^\nu}{E({\bf p})} f({\bf p}). \tag{2}$$ For an ideal fluid, you can compare this to $$T^{\mu\nu} = (\rho + P)u^\mu u^\nu - g^{\mu \nu} P.\tag{3}$$ to check the expression for the pressure. (Note that I use the mostly minus metric convention here).

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ How do you get the relation (2)? $\endgroup$
    – SRS
    Commented May 9, 2017 at 17:41
  • $\begingroup$ I did not actually derive it, but I guess you could start with the section on an isolated particle here : en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stress%E2%80%93energy_tensor, and generalize to the whole distribution f(p, x). Or at least convince yourself that (2) makes sense in light of that. $\endgroup$
    – Ihle
    Commented May 10, 2017 at 16:18
1
$\begingroup$

I think relation (2) can be derived the following way. Consider an element of surface $\delta S$ with its unit vector $\vec n$. The particles that will collide with it during a time ${\rm d} t$ lie in a tilted cylinder of volume $$ V = v \;{\rm d} t\; \cos \theta \; \delta S \;. $$ Now, the quantity ${\rm d}N$ defined as $$ {\rm d} N = \frac{g}{h^3} f(p)\;{\rm d}^3 p $$ gives the number of particles with momentum within ${\rm d}^3 p$ over the whole $4\pi$ solid angle. Here I use physical units (not natural) so that is why the Planck's constant $h$ appears. The fraction of those particles that have the right $\theta$ and $\phi$ is therefore given by the ratio $$ \frac{\sin \theta\; {\rm d}\theta \;{\rm d}\phi}{4\pi}\;. $$ Let us now select those particles that will effectively collide with our surface $\delta S$: $$ {\rm d} N_{coll} = \frac{g}{h^3} f(p)\;{\rm d}^3 p\; \frac{\sin \theta\; {\rm d}\theta \;{\rm d}\phi}{4\pi}\; v \cos \theta \; \delta S \;{\rm d} t\;. $$ We can assume that each particle transfers a momentum $2\vec p \cdot \vec n = 2\;p\cos\theta$ to the elementary surface, so the force is that value divided by ${\rm d}t$ and the pressure is obtained by further dividing by $\delta S$. Putting all of this together one has the pressure $$ dP = {\rm d} N_{coll}\;\frac{2\;\vec p \cdot \vec n}{{\rm d}t \;\delta S} =\frac{g}{2\pi h^3}f(p)\;p\;v\;\cos^2\theta \sin\theta \;{\rm d}\theta \; {\rm d}\phi\;{\rm d}^3 p\;. $$ The integral over $\phi$ gives $2\pi$ and $\theta$ shall be integrated between $0$ and $\pi/2$ to account for a positive pressure (from only one side of the surface). In the end the integral over $\theta$ gives a factor $1/3$, and we end up with $$ {\rm d} P = \frac{g}{h^3}\;f(p)\; \frac{p\;v}{3}\;{\rm d}^3p\;. $$ To finish we need to evaluate the product $p\times v$. Recall the definitions $$ \vec p = \gamma m \vec v $$ and $$ E = \gamma m c^2\;, $$ where $\gamma$ is the Lorentz factor, and from which we have $$ p\times v = \frac{p^2}{\gamma m} = \frac{p^2 c^2}{E}\;. $$ So in the end we have $$ {\rm d} P = \frac{g}{h^3}\;f(p)\; \frac{p^2 c^2}{3E} {\rm d}^3p\;. $$ To compare with the original post, we switch to natural units $\hbar = c =1$, in which case $h=2\pi$ and we find $$ P = \frac{g}{(2\pi)^3}\int \frac{|{\bf p}|^2}{3E} \;f({\bf p})\; {\rm d}^3{\bf p}\;. $$

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.