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In this post How can I understand the tunneling problem by Euclidean path integral where the quadratic fluctuation has a negative eigenvalue? we have path integration variable $x$ is expanded around the $\bar{x}$ $\tag{2.5} x(t^E)~=~\bar{x}(t^E) + y(t^E), \qquad y(t^E)~:=~\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}c_n x_n(t^E),$

The integral measure is then defined as $\tag{2.7} [dx]~=~\prod_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{dc_n}{\sqrt{2\pi\hbar}}.$

Should it not be

$[dx(t^E)]=[dy(t^E)]$

Why can we define the integral measure? Are the $c_n$ not constant or am i missing something?

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  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure I understand the question - what do you mean by "why"? It's a definition, we don't need a reason to be allowed to make definitions. What exactly do you want to know about that step? $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented May 2, 2017 at 10:26
  • $\begingroup$ Possible duplicate by OP: physics.stackexchange.com/q/315427/2451 $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic
    Commented May 2, 2017 at 10:51

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