-1
$\begingroup$

I was reading about torque and pseudo forces and my book says that the torque about centre of mass for a Pseudo/Fictious force is zero.

I cant really get that as it is non-intuitive for me .

Can someone explain it in a simple manner.

Any help is appreciated

Improve this question
$\endgroup$
3
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ Possible duplicate of Why does gravity act at the center of mass? $\endgroup$
    – AccidentalFourierTransform
    Commented Apr 26, 2017 at 16:33
  • $\begingroup$ This is definitely not true for the Coriolis or centrifugal force; they can exert torques about the CM. If you're only considering fictitious forces due to uniform linear motion, then check out the question linked by AccidentalFourierTransform above, especially this answer; the logic is the same as it is for a uniform gravitational field. $\endgroup$
    – Michael Seifert
    Commented Apr 26, 2017 at 16:48
  • $\begingroup$ This question should be reopened because the answer is wrong, not only here but in the link provided, the second link is irrelevant. Unless you interpret that the author meant linear acceleration, which nothing in the question makes it seem so. $\endgroup$
    – user65081
    Commented Mar 9, 2020 at 20:32

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1
$\begingroup$

While we sometimes think of things as pseudo-forces, they're really better thought of as accelerations (note: I don't have to call them pseudo-accelerations). The pseudo-forces are all results of using non-inertial frames*, which means they have an acceleration term which accounts for the non-inertial effects. For example, the "centrifugal force" in a rotating frame is more accurately a "centrifugal acceleration of $\frac{v^2}{r}$. This term can be derived directly from the change of frame from inertial to rotating, using calculus.

Sometimes it is convenient to choose to think of this effect as a force rather than thinking of it as an acceleration. If we multiply that acceleration by the mass of the object and treat it as a force, we get the exact same equations (it's simple algebra to convert one to the other). This is how we get a pseudoforce.

Now, to answer your question, this effect was best thought of as an acceleration the entire time. This acceleration does not cause the object to rotate about its center of mass. This is why the pseudoforces must always act on the center of mass. If the pseudoforce were to act on any other point, then the pseudoforce would cause a torque. If it caused a torque, it would no longer be a drop-in replacement for the acceleration term.

So in a sense, it's sort of backwards logic. Pseudoforces act on the center of mass because they are a mathematical construct designed to replace another more fundamental effect, and acting on the center of mass is the only way to have a force accomplish this goal.

* All things that I have heard called "pseudoforces" fit this description. If you come across one that does not, we can address it separately.

Improve this answer
$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ This is wrong, the Euler force produces a torque, for instance, in a bar orbiting about a circle hold with a string in the center of mass. In the inertia system the bar does not rotate, but in the rotating system it starts rotating as soon as you start accelerating it $\endgroup$
    – user65081
    Commented Mar 9, 2020 at 13:30

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.