Why Pseudo/Fictious Forces act at centre of mass [duplicate]

I was reading about torque and pseudo forces and my book says that the torque about centre of mass for a Pseudo/Fictious force is zero.

I cant really get that as it is non-intuitive for me .

Can someone explain it in a simple manner.

Any help is appreciated

• Possible duplicate of Why does gravity act at the center of mass? – AccidentalFourierTransform Apr 26 '17 at 16:33
• This is definitely not true for the Coriolis or centrifugal force; they can exert torques about the CM. If you're only considering fictitious forces due to uniform linear motion, then check out the question linked by AccidentalFourierTransform above, especially this answer; the logic is the same as it is for a uniform gravitational field. – Michael Seifert Apr 26 '17 at 16:48
• This question should be reopened because the answer is wrong, not only here but in the link provided, the second link is irrelevant. Unless you interpret that the author meant linear acceleration, which nothing in the question makes it seem so. – Wolphram jonny Mar 9 at 20:32

While we sometimes think of things as pseudo-forces, they're really better thought of as accelerations (note: I don't have to call them pseudo-accelerations). The pseudo-forces are all results of using non-inertial frames*, which means they have an acceleration term which accounts for the non-inertial effects. For example, the "centrifugal force" in a rotating frame is more accurately a "centrifugal acceleration of $\frac{v^2}{r}$. This term can be derived directly from the change of frame from inertial to rotating, using calculus.