So the Wood-Saxon density distribution for protons in a nucleus is given as follows: $$\rho_p(r) = \frac{\rho_{p0}}{1+e^{[(r-R_0)/a]}}$$
Here $r$ is the distance to the centre of the nucleus, and $a$ is the so called skin depth. $\rho_{p0}$ is a constant such that the integral of the distribution equals the number of protons in the nucleus.
Now in a recent exam, the following question was asked:
"In the Woods-Saxon formula, $a$ is the measure of the width of the edge region of the nucleus (also denoted as the “skin depth”). The density at the edge is decreased to 20% of the density in the centre of the nucleus at a radius $R_{20}$ and to 80% of the density at a radius $R_{80}$. What is the distance between $R_{20}$ and $R_{80}$ expressed in units of $a$?"
Now I plugged in the following in Mathematica, $\rho_p(0)=x\rho_p(r)$, where $x$ denotes the percentage. After solving this for $r$ and subtracting $r$ for $x=0.20$ and $x=0.80$, I came up with the following final answer: $$a \ln\left(0.0625 + \frac{1}{5.333... + 4.266.... \exp{R_0/a}}\right).$$
However the final answer given in the exam was $a \ln(0.0625)$. What am I missing here?
- Is $R_0>>a$ in general?
- Was the professor wrong?
- Something else?