# Time Dialation in Uniform Motion [duplicate]

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Is there EVIDENCE (proof) that time dilation actually occurs in the case of relative UNIFORM mottion (i.e., where no acceleration or decelleration occurs)? By proof, I don't mean mathematically but, instead, in observerable reality. No one answered this simple question. I raise this because to say in such a case that, from BOTH reference frames, the "moving" cliock is ticking slower than the "stationary" clock is a LOGICAL CONTRADICTION . Even invoking relativity of simultaneity where one clock begins ahead of the other, the period of supposed dilation is overlapped by both frames.

## marked as duplicate by DilithiumMatrix, Jon Custer, ZeroTheHero, Yashas, Qmechanic♦Apr 8 '17 at 6:38

• Possible duplicate of Is time dilation an illusion? – DilithiumMatrix Apr 7 '17 at 15:45
• Duplicate by same user? physics.stackexchange.com/q/323441 – Run like hell Apr 7 '17 at 15:47
• physics.stackexchange.com/q/54717 – dmckee Apr 7 '17 at 15:54
• Still waiting. The "proof" given involves gravity/acceleration (absolute motion), not relative UNIFORM motion. Since both reference frames are in the same Universe (reality), what is ACTUALLY occuring in each reference frame can't be a CONTRADICTION (i.e., the absurdity that each clock is REALLY ticking slower than the other). A plausible explanation is that such is what merely APPEARS to the respective observer. Even invoking relativity of simultaneity where one clock begins ahead of the other, there is still a period when the supposed time dialation is overlapping in both reference frames. – Rob Apr 13 '17 at 5:42