One can view QM as a 1+0 dimensional QFT, fields are only depending on time and so are only called operators, and I know a way to derive Schrödinger's equation from Klein-Gordon's one.
Assuming a field $\Phi$ with a low energy $ E \approx m $ with $m$ the mass of the particle, by defining $\phi$ such as $\Phi(x,t) = e^{-imt}\phi(x,t)$ and developing the equation
$$(\partial^2 + m^2)\Phi~=~0$$
neglecting the $\partial_t^2 \phi$ then one finds the familiar Schrödinger equation:
$$i\partial_t\phi~=~-\frac{\Delta}{2m}\phi.$$
Still, I am not fully satisfied about the transition field $\rightarrow$ wave function, even if we suppose that the number of particle is fixed, and the field now acts on a finite dimensional Hilbert Space (a subpart of the complete first Fock Space for a specific number of particles). Does someone has a another proposition/argument for this derivation?
Edit: for reference, the previous calculations are taken from Zee's book, QFT in a Nutshell, first page in Chapter III.5. Equivalently, see Wikipedia.