5
$\begingroup$

While I'm a mathematician/computer-scientist myself, I've some problems trying to understand some paper about the electronic states of graphene nanoribbons modelled by the tight-binding Hamiltonian (http://iopscience.iop.org/article/10.1088/1468-6996/11/5/054504/meta).

The nearest neighbour tight-binding Hamiltonian is defined as $$H = -t \sum_{R_B}\sum_{l=1}^3 a_{R_B+\tau_l}^\dagger b_{R_B} + \hbox {H.c.}\, ,$$ where H.c. stands for the Hermitian conjugate, $R_B+\tau_l$ are the neighbouring atoms of $R_B$ and $a_{R_A}^\dagger$ $(b_{R_B}^\dagger)$ create and $a_{R_A}$ $(b_{R_B})$ annihilate an electron at $R_A$ $(R_B)$ of the $A$ $(B)$ sublattice. The operators satisfy the Fermion anticommutation relations $$ \{a_{R_A},a_{R_A'}^\dagger\} = \delta_{R_A,R_A'}\, ,\quad \{b_{R_B},b_{R_B'}^\dagger\} = \delta_{R_B,R_B'}\, ,\quad \{a_{R_A},a_{R_A'}\} =0\, ,\quad \{b_{R_B},b_{R_B'}\} =0\, . $$

For me, it was sufficient to interpret the Hamiltonian for some finite graphene sample \begin{align} \mathbb{L}&=\{j_1 a_1 +j_2a_2 + \{0,1\}\tau : \tau=\frac{1}{3}(a_1 + a_2), \\ a_1&=\left(\frac{3}{2}, +\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\, , \quad a_2= \left(\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\right)\, ,\quad j_i \in \{0,1,\ldots\} \} \end{align} as a Adjacency matrix, which has 3 entries per row (all equal to $-t$). With this interpretation of $H$ I am able to verify numerically and understand the extraction of the eigenvalues and eigenfunctions to some extend: F.e.: I can block-diagonalize the matrix H (if permuted correctly) into $2\times2$ blocks using the orthonormal basis $(v_i)_{i=1,\ldots,N}$, where the vector $v_i$ has the entries $\left(\begin{matrix} e^{ikR_A} \\ \pm e^{ik(R_A+\tau)}\end{matrix}\right)$ where the first row corresponds to the values for the atoms of type A at position $R_A$ and the second row to atoms of type B at the position $(R_A+\tau)$ and $k\in L^*=$reciprocal Lattice of $L$.

What I don't understand is: what would be an explicit representation of the creation and annihilation operators? I interpreted them just as vectors (or functionals) $a_{R_A}=\left(\begin{array}{c} 0 & \cdots & 0 & 1 & 0 & \cdots & 0\end{array}\right)$, where the 1 is at the position which corresponds to the atom $R_A$, since with this interpretation i end up with the correct matrix representation of $H$. BUT, obviously, something like $ \{a_{R_A},a_{R_A'}\} = a_{R_A}a_{R_A'} =$ row-vector $\cdot$ row-vector

does not make any sense at all. So, is there any matrix representation of these operators?

And as a follow-up question: How is the Fourier transform defined for these operators? In the paper it says

We apply the following Fourier transformation to the above Hamiltonian $$a_{R_A} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{L_xL_y}} \sum_k e^{ikR_A} \alpha_k\, ,\quad b_{R_B} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{L_xL_y}} \sum_k e^{ikR_B} \beta_k.$$ Here $k=(k_x,k_y),$ and $L_x(L_y)$ denotes the number of unit cells in $x(y)$ direction. $H_k = -t \sum_k \sum_{l=1}^3 e^{-ik\tau_l} \alpha_k^\dagger \beta_k + $H.c.

I know that the Fourier transform is defined for vectors or functionals, for example if I interpret the creation/annihilation operators as functionals, i.e.: $$a_{R_A} : \mathbb{L}=\hbox{graphene Lattice}=\{ \hbox{positions of the atoms of the graphene lattice}\}\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$$ with $a_{R_A}(x) = \delta_{R_A,x} $, the Fourier transform can be applied to $a_{R_A}$.

The Fourier transform is defined by $$F:\{f:\mathbb{L} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}\}\rightarrow \{f:\mathbb{L^*} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}\}$$ with $(Ff)(k) = \sum_x e^{ikx} f(x)$, where $L^*$ is the reciprocal Lattice. Thus, we have $$(Fa_{R_A})(k) = \sum_x e^{ikx} a_{R_A}(x) = e^{ikR_A},$$ which is a result which does not seem to be completely off...

But how can the Fourier transform be applied to an operator, such that everything is consistent?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

I think you are confusing the space in which the hopping matrix acts, which has dimension $N$ where $N$ is the number of atomic sites, which the much bigger Fock space on which the $a$ and $a^\dagger$ act.

The Fock Hilbert space is $\bigotimes_{i=1}^N (V_2)_i $ where $N$ is the number of sites and $(V_2)_i$ is a two dimensional complex vector space, one for each atomic site labelled a sequence by $i=1,\ldots N$. So the total Hilbert space is $2^N$ dimensional. Acting on this space we can first try $$ a_i = {\mathbb I}_1\otimes {\mathbb I}_2\otimes \cdots \otimes (\sigma_-)_i \otimes {\mathbb I}_{i+1}\otimes \cdots\otimes {\mathbb I}_N $$ where the $$ \sigma_-= \left(\matrix{0&0\\ 1&0}\right) $$ factor acts on the $(V_2)_i$ at site $i$. Similarly $$ a_i^\dagger = {\mathbb I}_1\otimes {\mathbb I}_2\otimes \cdots \otimes (\sigma_+)_i \otimes \cdots \otimes {\mathbb I}_N $$ where $$ \sigma_+= \left(\matrix{0&1\\ 0&0}\right) $$ (I am not going to distinguish between $a$'s and $b$'s here.) Unifortunately, whle $\{\sigma_+,\sigma_-\}= {\mathbb I}$ these $a_i$ commute at different sites rather than anticommute. To get the anticommutation we use a Klein transformation where we replace the ${\mathbb I}$ to the left of $\sigma_{\pm}$ in the product by $$ \sigma_3= \left(\matrix{1&0\\ 0&-1}\right). $$ Physicists don't usually explain it in these terms. They just take linear combinations (your fourier series) to reduce the Hamiltonian acting on the big Fock space to the form $$ \hat H= \sum E_n c^\dagger_n c_n $$

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much for your answer. Unfortunately I am still pretty confused and I don't quite know how to make sense of it. With the help of a book (Quantum Field Theory - A Tourist Guide for Mathematicians, Gerald B. Folland) I think I now understand what a (Fermion) Fock space is. How do you exactly get from the creators/annihilators to an operator (the tight-binding) which acts on a much smaller space? $\endgroup$
    – Nils
    Apr 7, 2017 at 10:02
  • $\begingroup$ @Nils: The $N$-by-$N$ matrices that diagonalize the $N$ atom hamiltonian, have a representation on the $2^N$ dimensional fermionic Fock space. It's like the relation between the defining representation $U(g)$ of a matrix Lie group and its adjoint $A(g)$. We have $U(g)\lambda_a U^{-1}(g) = \lambda_b {[A(g)]^b}_a$. $\endgroup$
    – mike stone
    Apr 7, 2017 at 16:19
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I think I understand it now. While an ONB of the fock space is given by $$\{ |n_1,n_2,\ldots,n_N \rangle : n_j=0 \text{ or } 1 \}$$, we only consider one-particle-states(?) $$\Psi_i = |0,\ldots,0,1,0,\ldots,0\rangle$$ (1 at pos. i) to obtain the $N$-by-$N$ matrix, i.e. it is given by $$H_{ij}=\langle \Psi_i|H|\Psi_j\rangle$$. In here use $$a_j|n_1,n_2,\ldots,n_j,\ldots\rangle> = (-1)^m|n_1,n_2,\ldots,n_j-1,\ldots\rangle> if n_j=1 ; and =0 if n_j=0 $$ and $$a_j^\dagger|n_1,n_2,\ldots,n_j,\ldots\rangle> = (-1)^m|n_1,n_2,\ldots,n_j+1,\ldots\rangle> if n_j=0 ; and =0 if n_j=1 $$. $\endgroup$
    – Nils
    Apr 10, 2017 at 9:28

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.