Consider the standard vector potential for an infinite solenoid of radius $R$, $$\vec{A}(r) = \frac{\Phi}{2\pi} \left(\frac{\theta(R-r)}{R^2}r + \frac{\theta(r-R)}{r} \right) \hat{\varphi}.$$ Here, $\theta(\cdot)$ is the Heaviside theta function, $\Phi$ is the magnetic flux and $(r,\varphi)$ are the polar coordinates. Suppose now we do the following gauge transformation $$\vec{A} \to \vec{A} - \vec{\nabla} \Lambda$$ with $$\Lambda = \frac{\Phi}{2\pi} \varphi.$$ This would give rise to a new vector potential $$\vec{A}'(r) = \frac{\Phi}{2\pi} \left(\frac{r}{R^2} - \frac{1}{r} \right) \theta(R-r) \hat{\varphi},$$ which clearly invalidates the (gauge-invariant) requirement that $$\oint \vec{A}' \cdot d \vec{r} = \Phi,$$ since $\vec{A}'$ completely vanishes outside the solenoid.
- Why is it that $\Lambda$ seems to be an ill-defined gauge function? What conditions does it not satisfy? I assume it has something to do with multivaluedness of the angle $\varphi$?
- I have seen a lot of research papers (e.g. concerning anyons) in which $\Lambda$ is used. Is there a way to compensate $\Lambda$'s "ill-defined"-ness by some other means? For example, is there a way to obtain the correct magnetic flux from the new vector potential $\vec{A}'$?