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Is Loschmidt's paradox a paradox even today?

In other words, is the paradox resolved or not?

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    $\begingroup$ Possible duplicate: physics.stackexchange.com/q/19970/2451 $\endgroup$
    – Qmechanic ♦
    Jun 29, 2012 at 9:53
  • $\begingroup$ Well, for finite bounded closed systems, there's Poincare recurrences... $\endgroup$
    – user10176
    Jun 29, 2012 at 9:59
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    $\begingroup$ No, it is considered irrelevant today. See, e.g., this paper. Of course, this does not imply that the problem of the foundations of statistical physics has been settled (in particular, the proper interpretation of probabilities in the theory). $\endgroup$
    – Yvan Velenik
    Jun 29, 2012 at 14:08
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    $\begingroup$ @YvanVelenik What paper were you referencing? The link is dead. $\endgroup$
    – Milan
    Jul 8, 2020 at 1:18
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    $\begingroup$ @Milan : Well, it was a while ago, so I don't remember. It could be Goldstein's paper in this book. But there are other nice papers addressing this topic by Lebowitz or Bricmont for instance (examples: this one and that one). $\endgroup$
    – Yvan Velenik
    Jul 8, 2020 at 7:49

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In my opinion it is not solved. It is based on Boltzmann H-theorem which is highly critical. It is though that the wrong assumption which leads to the paradox is the Stosszahlansatz http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Molecular_chaos

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    $\begingroup$ No, the resolution of this "paradox" has nothing to do with the H-theorem. See the refs in my comment above. $\endgroup$
    – Yvan Velenik
    Aug 19, 2012 at 8:25

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