Can someone correct my understanding on this? So, if an object has constant acceleration, and travels a distance $x$, it means its momentum will change by $mv_2 - mv_1$.
Now, if the same object travels a distance $4x$, and undergoes the same constant acceleration does it also mean that the momentum will also change by $4mv$? Since, it is now traveling at 4 times the previous time, therefore it must also gain a velocity of 4 times the amount?
Since momentum does not have a distance dependency, yet velocity and time does, this is just something I wanted to double check.