0
$\begingroup$

I'm just starting to learn about field operators. The construction I saw was the following:

We want an operator $\Psi^\dagger(x)$ which, acting on the vacuum state $\vert 0 \rangle$ gives the state with well defined position $\vert x \rangle$ (in one dimension). Well, we have $$ \vert x\rangle=\underset{i}{\sum}\vert\phi_{i}\rangle\langle\phi_{i}\vert x\rangle=\underset{i}{\sum}\phi_{i}^{*}(x)a_i^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle $$ (with $\{\vert\phi_i\rangle\}$ an eigenbasis of some observable $A$). So $$\Psi^{\dagger}(x)=\underset{i}{\sum}\phi_{i}^{*}(x)a_i^{\dagger}.$$

Now I want to do the same for the case when one has to consider the spin. Thus, I want an operator $\Psi_\sigma^\dagger(x)$ which, acting on the vacuum state $\vert 0 \rangle$ gives the state $\vert x \,\sigma \rangle$. In this case: $$ \vert x\,\sigma\rangle=\underset{i}{\sum}\vert\Phi_{i}\rangle\langle\Phi_{i}\vert x\,\sigma\rangle=\underset{i}{\sum}\Phi_{i\sigma}^{*}(x)\,a_{i}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle $$ (with $\{\vert\Phi_i\rangle\}$ an eigenbasis of some observable $A$ acting on the state space $\mathcal{E}=\mathcal{E_x}\otimes\mathcal{E_\sigma}$). So $$\Psi_{\sigma}^{\dagger}(x)=\underset{i}{\sum}\Phi_{i\sigma}^{*} (x)\,a_{i}^{\dagger}.$$ I now try something a little bit different: instead of using the closure relation of the basis $\{\vert\Phi_i\rangle\}$, I use the one of $\{\vert\phi_i\rangle\}$: $$ \vert x\,\sigma\rangle=(\underset{i}{\sum}\vert\phi_{i}\rangle\langle\phi_{i}\vert x\rangle)\otimes\vert\sigma\rangle=\underset{i}{\sum}\langle\phi_{i}\vert x\rangle(\vert\phi_{i}\rangle\otimes\vert\sigma\rangle)=\underset{i}{\sum}\phi_{i}^{*}(x)a_{i\sigma}^{\dagger}\vert0\rangle $$ (Note: I am not completely sure of my second equal sign). So $$\Psi_{\sigma}^{\dagger}(x)=\underset{i}{\sum}\phi_{i}^{*}(x)a_{i\sigma}^{\dagger}$$

I would like you to please confirm this (the last one in particular, which I haven't seen anywhere), since I'm not completely sure of it.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ In your first formula, where does the $a^\dagger\lvert 0\rangle$ come from? Should it be $a_i^\dagger\lvert 0\rangle$, and if yes, how do you know such an operator exists? Same question for the $a_{i\sigma}^\dagger$. $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Jan 26, 2017 at 0:22
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, you're right, I'll correct it. Well honestly I don't know the answer to that. In my classes, we motivated their existence considering an analogy with a system of N oscillators, but it was hardly rigorous and I did not understand it completely. $\endgroup$
    – Soap
    Jan 26, 2017 at 0:30
  • $\begingroup$ @ACuriousMind (I forgot to identify you in the previous comment). $\endgroup$
    – Soap
    Jan 26, 2017 at 1:07

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

Thank you for your detailed explanation. Even though you ask a question, I resolved my persistent questions thanks to your explanation. I think we can approach this problem as following method, although it is not that different from yours;

$\hat{\psi}_\sigma (\vec{r} ) = \langle \vec{r},\sigma |\hat{a}\rangle = \sum_{i \sigma'}{\langle \vec{r},\sigma} | i,\sigma' \rangle \langle{i, \sigma'}| \hat{a} \rangle $

If we can separate $|\vec{r},\sigma\rangle$ and $|i,\sigma \rangle$ as $| \vec{r}\rangle |\sigma\rangle $ and $| i\rangle |\sigma\rangle $ respectively, the field operator becomes

$\hat{\psi}_\sigma (\vec{r} ) = \sum_{i\sigma'} \langle \vec{r} | i \rangle \delta_{\sigma \sigma'} \langle i,\sigma' | \hat{a} \rangle = \sum_{i} \phi_i (\vec{r}) \langle i,\sigma|\hat{a} \rangle = \sum_{i} \phi_i(\vec{r} ) \hat{a}_{i\sigma }$.

I'm not sure my answer is right, and I'm also a student struggling to learn about 2nd quantization. But I've searched many materials online, and organized the answer like this.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.