In thermodynamics we have Carnot's Theorem which states that the efficency of any heat engine wich works with only two temperature's source is less or equal to Carnot's engine which works between the same two temperatures. This statement follows from the second principle of thermodynamics. Can we say indeed that this statement is equivalent to that principle ? If yes i would like to get a proof or otherwise a controexample.
Or More precisely:
how can I see that if does not exist heat engine which works with only two sources that has efficiency more of the Carnot' s one, than
•does not exist any heat machine with efficiency equal to 1 Or
•we can't make a transform having as unique effect to transfer heat form a cold body to an hot body Or
•we can't transfor with a cycle all heat absorbed into work Or •deltaS>=0