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Inflation theory, proposed by Alan Guth, was, in part, an explaination for the observed near-thermodynamic equilibrium of our observable universe.

My question is:

Why - at the instant of the big-bang event and shortly thereafter (shortly meaning subsequent small units of planck-time ) - were there ANY differences in energy/density or temperature of the embryonic universe to begin with?

I assume that results of most explosions are irregular and unpredictable due to irregularities in the explosive substance itself and in the adjacent surroundings. At the instant of the appearance of energy and space and time at the big bang event, there were no surroundings to interact with to produce inequalities in the energy distribution.

Certainly, quantum mechanics would allow for subsequent probabilistic inequalities, but I see no theoretical suggestion that the initial big-bang event was other than a single quantum-occurrence event. Therefore, the first initial state was, by logical reasoning, inevitably smooth (without anisotropy).

When (at what time after the initial bang bang, event or time=zero) and how (for instance, a subsequent probabilistic quantum state event) did the first anisotropy in the energy density of the universe occur?

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  • $\begingroup$ I think, from similar questions in the past, that any attempt to compare the big bang to a (classical mechanics based) explosion, will give inevitably the impression that you have a mental picture that the Big Bang started at a point. It didn't, and even if you know that (for which my apologies), I doubt that you will find the word explosion in any of the formal literature regarding the ahem.......event ;) $\endgroup$ – user140606 Jan 19 '17 at 7:29
  • $\begingroup$ I don't think John is comparing the Big Bang to an explosion. Contrasting might be a better word. $\endgroup$ – Lewis Miller Jan 19 '17 at 16:17

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