I'm self-studying so sadly I don't have a professor or classmate to ask this to. I'm mostly learning through Khan Academy which is where I came across this question:
A ball of mass $M$ is rolling on a table with a speed $v$ as seen in the bird's eye view below. It strikes the outside edge of a uniform rod of length $L$ which has the same mass as the ball $M$. The rod was initially at rest, but is free to rotate about the left end of the rod. After striking the rod, the ball stops and the rod rotates about its left end. In terms of given quantities, what is the angular speed ω of the rod immediately after being struck by the ball? The moment of inertia of a rod about its end is $\frac{1}{3}ML^2 $.
I understand how to solve this using conservation of angular momentum:
$mLv = I\omega$
$Lv = \frac{1}{3}mL^2 \omega$
$\omega = \frac{3v}{L}$
This is also the answer that the website provides. Now I assume the collision is elastic - or maybe that's my error? Also, we're talking about a ball, i.e. a sphere (right?), which has rotational inertia $I_b = \frac{2}{5}Mr^2$. Assuming that the collision is elastic, and thus conservation of kinetic energy holds
$KE_i = \frac{1}{2}mv^2+\frac{1}{2}I_{b}(\frac{v}{r_{b}})^2 = \frac{1}{2}m(v^2+\frac{2}{5}v^2)$
$KE_f = \frac{1}{2}I_{r}\omega_r^2 = \frac{1}{2}(\frac{1}{3}mL^2)\omega_r^2 $
$KE_i = KE_f,$ so $\frac{7}{5}v^2=\frac{1}{3}L^2\omega_r^2 $
$\omega_r^2 = \frac{21}{5}\frac{v^2}{L^2}$, giving $\omega_r = \frac{\sqrt{21}v}{\sqrt{5}L}$
Does the problem lie with my assumptions, or with my calculations? Is the conclusion simply that the collision is inelastic?