Could anyone please explain why the system of two identical particles should have anti-symmetric wave function when their relative orbital angular momentum is $l=1$?
I tried hard to find the reason from Griffiths' and Shankar's Quantum Mechanics textbooks. But even I spent two days, I still have no idea how you can predict the wave function of two particle systems with different relative angular momentum $l$.
It would be very appreciated, when you could give me an explanation.
The page where I found the above statement is here. The first answer says that the two neutral pions have anti-symmetric wave function when $l=1$.