# Lorentz force (equation)

i have a question

When we consider the motion of a particle, then write ordinary Lorentz force Why do not we consider a charged particle's own field, because it is known, is always much larger than the external field and the even formation It becomes infinite at the point where the particle is?

• From the particles POV, what's its own (effective) field gonna be? That might help you out. – John W. Dec 7 '16 at 9:55