1
$\begingroup$

If you take a real 3D beam, how many natural frequencies does it have? Likewise, how many natural frequencies does a beam have if it's a one dimensional, like an Euler beam?

$\endgroup$
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Almost infinite? $\endgroup$ – Pieter Dec 4 '16 at 21:21
  • $\begingroup$ What is your supposed argument? What is your opinion as opposed to the opinion of your friend? $\endgroup$ – freecharly Dec 4 '16 at 21:44
  • $\begingroup$ I didn't want to included the argument so it doesn't influence it lol, but basically there is n-th terms of natural frequencies for n-th term of nodes in a shape. A 1d beam with a node at the end of each side has two natural frequencies while a real 3d beam has infinite amount of nodes therefore an infinite amount of natural frequencies. I believe nodes and natural frequencies are unrelated. They both have an infinite amount of natural frequencies. Thanks $\endgroup$ – MEandme Dec 4 '16 at 21:57
  • $\begingroup$ Do you mean fundamental frequencies? Because (also in 1D) each frequency is associated to an infinite number of harmonics (corresponding to an increasing number of nodes). The "nodes on each side" are the boundary conditions of the problem. $\endgroup$ – stafusa Jul 20 '17 at 11:29
-1
$\begingroup$

Basically, natural frequency of a system depends on its stiffness and mass.

I would say the number of natural frequencies of a system is equivalent to the degrees of freedom of that system.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.