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I was asked to find the condition(velocity ) for which the net inertial force with respect to earth acting on a body moving at fixed latitude to be 0.

Firstly I thought the coriolis force must be made 0 by moving it along the parallels of latitude. Then I tried to find the condition for which centrifugal force is 0. I thought if we move it with the speed equal to the speed of rotation of earth at that latitude, i. e. R w cos x....R being radius of earth, w being angular speed of earth and x being latitude ,also moving in same direction. But do we need to consider the effect of the revolution of earth? Please help& correct if I am wrong.

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Gert, user36790, user259412, Jon Custer, John Rennie Dec 4 '16 at 7:38

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  • $\begingroup$ I asked , if there are any inertial forces generated due to the revolution of earth? I thought of the coriolis force and the centrifugal force and tried to make their magnitude 0. But are there any other forces coming into play? $\endgroup$ – Suprabha Dec 4 '16 at 10:44

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