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Usually when by measurement is found out through which slit the particle went then there is no interference. But suppose you don’t measure through which slit it went but for example his spin, will it destroy interference?

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  • $\begingroup$ Yes, as far as I know, physically measuring any aspect of the setup destroys interference but better people than I can hopefully give you more information. Please see this related answer physics.stackexchange.com/questions/172593/… $\endgroup$ – user108787 Dec 1 '16 at 23:08
  • $\begingroup$ And here is how they measure the spin : physics.stackexchange.com/questions/210885/… $\endgroup$ – user108787 Dec 1 '16 at 23:43
  • $\begingroup$ I have not seen any reference about this, but I would guess that getting many neutral particles or atoms one-by-one through an appropriate double-slit followed by a Stern-Gerlach apparatus (between the slits and a relatively far-away screen) would lead to several spatially distinct interference patterns, one for each possible measured spin value. In such a setup we would measure each particle spin by looking at which pattern it contributes to, without destroying the overall spatial interference. $\endgroup$ – Stéphane Rollandin Dec 2 '16 at 15:16
  • $\begingroup$ Well in the EPRG paradox entanglement seems to create a measurement too just by there entanglement and knowing one spin youtube.com/watch?v=dEaecUuEqfc $\endgroup$ – Marijn Dec 2 '16 at 16:31

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