I was studying for my AP Physics test when I came across the following problem, which seemed to confuse me:
The ramp is frictionless, and the spring is initially at it's relaxed length, and the angle is $\theta = 45^{\circ}$.
I worked through this by considering the potential energy lost as the kinetic energy gained just before the mass hits the spring, with the equation
$mgh = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$,
and plugging in the known values, getting:
$40\cdot9.8\cdot\frac{2}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 40 \cdot v^2$,
to solve for $v$, which gives $v = 5.25 \frac{m}{s}$. However, I am unsure whether this is the correct answer, as I am unsure when the maximum speed occurs. If it exists after the compression of the spring, how do I go about calculating it?
Thank you.