Hello here i have a problem which is following
Say there are two waves which are
$x_1=A_1cos(w_1t)\\x_2=cos(w_2t)$
In my book it is written that $x=x_1+x_2=2Acos\frac{(w_1-W-2)}{2}tcos\frac{(w_1+W-2)}{2}t$ And we know that $f_b=f_2-f_1$ Here $f_b$ is beat frequency.
Because we know that $cos\frac{(w_1+W-2)}{2}t$ make a lot of fluctuation we do not consider it as beats frequency but $cos\frac{(w_1-W-2)}{2}$ makes les we can say it is the frequency for whole motion.
Here $f_b=(w_1-w_2)/2\pi$ we get $cos(f\pi t)$But angular frequency is $w=f2\pi$ I am confused here.
Thank you for all help!!