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Suppose I have a Hamiltonian $H=H(p,q)=H(p,q+1)$ defined on a cylinder $\mathbb{T} \times \mathbb{R}^{+}$, such that $$H(p,q) = \sqrt{p}f(q)$$ where $f(q)=f(q+1)>0$ is a periodic function of $q$, so that we have $p \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$ and $q \in \mathbb{T}$. I want to convert the system to action-angle variables and verify that the time-$1$ map of the flow is twist in those variables.

Hamilton's equations are \begin{equation} \dot{q} = \frac{f(q)}{2\sqrt{p}}, \qquad \dot{p}=-\sqrt{p}f'(q) \label{hamiltonsinneq} \end{equation}

Due to the form of $H$, all its orbits are closed curves and we may define the action-angle variables $(I, \vartheta)$. By definition we have $$I = \int^{1}_{0} p dq = \int^{1}_{0} \frac{H^{2}}{f^{2}(q)} dq = H^{2}\int^{1}_{0}\frac{dq}{ f^{2}(q)} .$$ From this we express $H$ in terms of $(I, \vartheta)$:

$$H = \sqrt{\frac{I}{\int^{1}_{0}\frac{dq}{ f^{2}(q)} }}$$ Since $H$ depends nonlinearly on $I$, and $$\dot{\vartheta} = \omega(I)= \frac{\partial H}{\partial I},$$ the time-$1$ map of $H$ is an integrable map satisfying the twist condition $\frac{d\omega}{dI} \neq 0$.

Can anyone confirm if the above derivation is correct?

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  • $\begingroup$ Shouldn't your definition include a $(2 \pi)^{-1} $ and involve an $\oint $, not a $\int $? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2016 at 4:38
  • $\begingroup$ $(2\pi)^{-1})$ factor is not of vital importance as we can always rescale the Hamiltonian to take that into account, and it really is of individual preference. Regarding the closed integral, the notation is interchangeable depending on the context. Since we are integrating around a closed orbit on a cylinder so I write $\int$ to mean $\oint$ (This can be understood by looking at the limits in the integral) @QuantumBrick $\endgroup$
    – Alex
    Commented Oct 15, 2016 at 10:18
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    $\begingroup$ Then I don't see why would it not be correct. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17, 2016 at 15:31

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