In the derivation for Goldstone modes, a pdf I found online (scipp.ucsc.edu/~dine/ph222/goldstone_lecture.pdf) says it's believed the above-mentioned expectation value $\langle \bar{ \psi} \psi \rangle $ is approximately (0.3GeV)³. I consulted Peskin and Schröder, and I thought expanding $\psi$ in terms of creation and annihilation operators would be the way to proceed but they've calculated the value in terms of the propagator. (eq. 3.114) Is this even the correct way to proceed?
How do I calculate the explicit value of above expression/ prove it is non 0?
Sorry for the lack of formulae, it's really hard to type latex commands while on mobile. Will be updating the relevant formulae in the morning.