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What is exactly the difference between wave of probability and wave function? In the book The Hidden Reality, Brian Greene says that , in double slit experiment, the wave of probability goes through the open slit(s). And hence, if both are open, then they interfere giving place to an interference pattern.

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closed as unclear what you're asking by user36790, user108787, David Z Sep 9 '16 at 7:54

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • $\begingroup$ You'll need to provide a bit of context. The term wavefunction has a precise definition that we all understand, but wave of probability does not. Can you explain where you have seen it used and maybe provide a link to a source we can check for ourselves? $\endgroup$ – John Rennie Sep 9 '16 at 7:05
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    $\begingroup$ I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because OP shows no research efforts. $\endgroup$ – user36790 Sep 9 '16 at 7:12
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It sounds like the difference Brian Greene is referring to is that a wavefunction takes on complex values (i.e., partially imaginary), and he doesn't think a popular reader will want to deal with that, so he is multiplying the wavefunction by its complex conjugate (which turns it into a real number that is positive, and can be interpreted as a kind of probability). So the bottom line is, he doesn't think the distinction is important at the level of the audience he is trying to reach. Note we normally wouldn't think of probability waves as interfering, we'd think of wavefunctions as interfering when you go to calculate the resulting probability wave.

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