The classical scalar field theory Lagrangian is:
$$ \mathcal{L} = \frac{1}{2} \left ( \partial_{\mu} \phi \right )^2 - \frac{1}{2} m^2 \phi^2. $$
I'm comfortable with the fact that the Lagrangian is a linear combination of $ \left ( \partial_{\mu} \phi \right )^2 $ and $ \phi^2 $. However, I'm having a hard time interpreting the fact that the dependence of the second term on $ \phi^2 $ is proportional to $ m^2 $.
From the motivation as a set of classical springs, I would expect the first term to exhibit dependence on $ m $ and the second term to be proportional to $ k $. How intuitively can we justify having an $ m^2 $ in front of $ \phi^2 $? Is there no explanation other than the units working out?
Thanks!
P.S. I should note that I'm using $ \hbar = c = 1 $ units. I also presume that $ \phi $ has units of length (like oscillator displacement).
P.P.S. While googling this question, I found how to use Fourier analysis of the equations of motion to prove that $ m $ represents the mass of the scalar field. While this is somewhat helpful, I'm really looking for an explanation of why we cannot simply extend the dependence on $ m $ from our intuition as a set of interconnected springs.