I was reading the chapter Newton's 1st law of Motion , where I met the definition of Inertia.
The property of an Object by virtue of which it neither changes its state nor tends to change the state, is called Inertia.
What I made out of it, was That Inertia gives us the resisting ability of An object.
But doesn't this ability also depend on velocity. I know I'm referring to momentum but isn't inertia supposed to tell us which object has a greater resisting capability.
Hopefully, I'm clear enough.
Edit 1 : From Steeven's Answer I am certain that inertia doesn't depend on Velocity. But as far as I understand it, inertia is dependent on acceleration(For Force is directly proportional to inertia and Acceleration is directly proportional to Force).I am I correct with my observations ?