I am measuring the viscosity in water using a falling ball viscometer. In my system, I believe that exists two forces:
The force difference between the weight and buoyancy of the sphere:
$F_g = m'g = \frac{4}{3} \pi g r^3 ( \rho _s - \rho_l) $
where $m'$ is the effective mass of the sphere, $ \rho _1 $ the density of the sphere and $ \rho _l $ the density of the liquid
A frictional force given by the Stokes law:
$ F_f = 6 \pi r \eta v$
where $ r $ is the radio of the sphere, $ \eta $ the viscosity of the fluid, $v$ the velocity of the sphere
Equaling the two forces I obtain:
$ \eta = \frac{2}{9} \frac{r^2 g ( \rho _1 - \rho_2 )}{v_t} $
where $ v_t $ is now the terminal velocity
I believe that exists another force due the walls of the tube, since when I drop balls with similar densities but with very little diameter differences, the balls achieve quite different terminal velocities. But I would like to know how can I describe this force based in the geometry of the tube
I believe this is true because if I use the last equation, I obtain viscosities very different from the literature
For example the water density is $ 1000 kg/m^3 $, the density of the ball is $ 2400 kg/m^3 $, the diameter of the sphere is 0.01581 m, and the diameter of the tube is 0.016 m, so:
$ \eta = \frac{2}{9} \frac{(0.01581 m/2)^2 (9.8 m/s^2) ( 2400 kg/m^3 - 1000 kg/m^3 )}{0.000802 m/s} = 237.55 pa*s $
Considering that the water was at room temperature the answer should be 0.00089 pa*s . So there is a lot of difference
I am not even sure if this law is correct, if I consider the correct answer, then:
$ v_t= \frac{2}{9} \frac{(0.01581 m/2)^2 (9.8 m/s^2) ( 2400 kg/m^3 - 1000 kg/m^3 )}{0.00089 pa*S} = 213.79 m/s $
That is a very high velocity in my opinion.
I would like to deduce the full equation, but I am not sure if I am making the correct assumptions or if I missing something important, I would appreciate any suggestions, thanks in advance