So, in defining work as force * distance, how is mass applied? Is it just that it's $1kg$ multiplied in normally, but that's typically ignored / not shown?
$2kg \cdot 1n \cdot 1m$ = $2J$
..or is the answer for $2kg$ still somehow $1J$, and I'm missing something?
@knzhou points out that mass is irrelevant -- however, it took me a while (and a different conversation) to sort out why.
Edit: In retrospect, the question would probably have been better phrased as *"Why isn't mass relevant in calculating work?"
The thought experiment I had in my head was this:
Two bricks, a 1kg brick and a 2kg brick, are floating in space. A 1N force is applied to each one until it moves 1 meter. It takes longer for the 2kg brick to reach this point, and I was thinking that since the force was applied for a longer time, it amounted to an increase in kinetic energy (and thus it must have recieved more work than the 1kg brick). However, this isn't the case -- it has more momentum, but the work received is the same, reflected in that the 2kg brick has a lower velocity after having travelled the meter.
In the end, I was conflating work and momentum, and overlooking the final velocity of each brick. Thanks for the answers, and I apologize that my question wasn't well-structured.