Suppose we have two point charges in the Cartesian coordinate system. $q_1= e, q_2 = 2e$, where $q_1$ is positioned at $(0,0,0)$ and $q_2$ at $(a,0,0)$ for $a > 0 $. Further there is a point charge $q_3 = -e $ starting at infinty and I wanna now how much work does it need to come to the point $A = (0,a,0)$. I have two different ideas how to approach this:
I know oppositely charged objects attract each other so it will just "fly" there without any help, more I can say it has a higher potential at infinty than at the point A
I know this equation for the potential of a charge in a system of charges $Q_1,\dots,Q_N$ $$\phi(\vec{x}) = \frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon_0} \sum_{i=1}^N \frac{Q_i}{\|\vec{x}-\vec{x}_i\|} $$ Considering $$\phi(\vec{x}) = \int_{-\infty}^{\vec{x}} \vec{E}(\vec{x}) d\vec{x}$$ these two equations I should get the desired result. (I wonder why this equation doesn't depend on my test charge.)
My question is which approach is the correct one? Where are my mistakes?
EDIT: As pointed out in the comments i calculate the potential: $$\phi(\vec{x}) = \frac{e}{4\pi \epsilon_0 a} (1+\sqrt{2})$$ I still wonder why approach one isn't true and why the potential doesnt depend on my test charge, though i think i can read the second in a book and will try to do so.
This is my first physics related question on English so please tell me if there are obscurities.