Just a short question about the protocol for solving the time-independent Schrodinger equation for different potentials and the reasons for accepting and rejecting solutions.
Take for example the inverted step potential $$V(x) = -\alpha \delta(x).$$ For bound state $E < 0$, we check for normalizable (physically realizable solutions) solutions and reject the others. For the scattering case $E > 0$, none of the solutions to the time independent Schrodinger equation are normalizable so we just work with the reflection coefficient and transmission coefficient.
But for the free particle $$\Psi(x,t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}}\int^{+\infty}_{-\infty}\phi(k)e^{i(kx-\frac{h k^2}{2m}t)}dk$$ we only have scattered states as solutions for the time independent Schrodinger equation, but we can form a general solution above which could be normalizable for appropriate choice of $\phi(k)$.
My queries are basically:
- Why do we reject the non-normalizable solutions of bound states if as in the case of the free particle, the general solution could still be normalizable?
- Also, could we form a normalizable general solution for the scattered states $(E >0)$ of the inverted delta function as we can for the free-particle?
Thanks.