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A chain of length d lies on a table, $d/4$ of it hangs loose on the side of it. Friction coefficient is 0.2. It is released and begins to slide. What is the final velocity with which it falls of the table?

enter image description here

My attempt: $Wf = \bigtriangleup Ug = - \int_0^{0.75d} \! \mu_k g \frac{m}{d}(\frac{d}{4}+x) \, \mathrm{d}x = -0.4687\mu_k mgd$

Which is the change and loss in energy during the slide. My plan was to equate the initial gravitational potential energy to the final kinetic energy plus the energy lost from friction (calculated above), however there is no way to define the friction for the rope since it has two parts, with apparently distinct potential energies. Is there another way to do it?

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    $\begingroup$ Hi and welcome to the Physics SE! Please note that this is not a homework help site. Please see this Meta post on asking homework questions and this Meta post for "check my work" problems. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2016 at 16:59
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    $\begingroup$ I'm pretty sure I've shown enough of my work here for this to be counted as a valid question $\endgroup$
    – Bak1139
    Commented Jun 3, 2016 at 17:00
  • $\begingroup$ Just by showing attempt doesn't mean HW is on-topic; there must be some conceptual query. Presently it simply wants another solution. So, yeah I agree with John; better read our policies on how to post a HW question. $\endgroup$
    – user36790
    Commented Jun 3, 2016 at 17:07
  • $\begingroup$ I've seen more than a few HW questions here who were not conceptual in the slightest, and went on just fine....what do you have to say on that, Mr. MAFIA? $\endgroup$
    – Bak1139
    Commented Jun 3, 2016 at 17:11
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    $\begingroup$ @Bak1139 I believe the tone of the last part of your last comment is not appropriate for this site; however, I do agree that this particular question does have a (somewhat disguised) conceptual question inside - namely "how does one calculate work done by friction when only part of the rope is in contact with the surface?". $\endgroup$
    – Floris
    Commented Jun 3, 2016 at 21:48

2 Answers 2

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The conceptual problem seems to be

however there is no way to define the friction for the rope since it has two parts, with apparently distinct potential energies.

Don't worry about the "distinct potential energies". You can just compute the gain in potential energy for each part separately. For the bit already hanging down, as the rope slides by a certain distance, the center of mass moves by that same distance. For the bit of rope that starts off horizontal, when the last part goes over the edge its center of mass has moved half as far.

That leaves the calculation of the work done by friction. If you consider your chain like a train with lots of cars, then for each car in the train you can consider the work done due to friction. In other words - for an infinitesimal element $d\ell$ that starts out at a distance $x$ from the edge, the force of friction is $\mu \frac{d\ell}{L} m g$ and the work done is $F \cdot x$.

Summing the work for all these elements will give you the total work done. That is a simple integral.

In the spirit of "homework like questions", I will leave you with these hints.

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  • $\begingroup$ How do you incorporate center of mass with potential gravitational energy? our physics course guides haven't explained us that... $\endgroup$
    – Bak1139
    Commented Jun 6, 2016 at 10:50
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    $\begingroup$ The center of mass is the point where gravity appears to act. When a chain of mass $m$ and length $\ell$ goes from horizontal to vertical, the center of mass (middle of the segment) drops by $\ell/2$ and potential energy changes by $-\frac12 mg\ell$. Does that make sense? $\endgroup$
    – Floris
    Commented Jun 6, 2016 at 11:08
  • $\begingroup$ The center of mass is in this relativity simple case has to be in the center of each rope right? And you act as if the entire mass is in that point? (per segment) $\endgroup$
    – Bak1139
    Commented Jun 6, 2016 at 11:10
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    $\begingroup$ Yes that's the approach I am suggesting $\endgroup$
    – Floris
    Commented Jun 6, 2016 at 11:16
  • $\begingroup$ I understood it $\endgroup$
    – Bak1139
    Commented Jun 7, 2016 at 12:38
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Yes, the work-energy method can be used. The particular difficulties you noticed can be dealt with by considering the chain in 2 parts : that part hanging down (which loses PE but experiences no friction) and that part remaining on the table (which does not lose PE but experinces friction).

Suppose the mass of the chain is $M$. In the initial position, the CM of the overhaning section is $\frac{d}{8}$ below the table. The section remaining on the table has $0$ PE. So the initial PE of the chain relative to the table is $-\frac14Mg(\frac{d}{8}) = -\frac{1}{32} Mgd$. When the last link of the chain slips off the table then the CM of the whole chain is $\frac{d}{2}$ below the table so the PE is $-\frac12 Mgd$. The decrease in PE is
$(\frac12-\frac{1}{32})Mgd = \frac{15}{32}Mgd.$

When length y of the chain remains on the table then the friction force on it is $\frac15Mg\frac{y}{d}$ where $\frac15$ is the coefficient of friction. The work done against friction is
$\int \frac15 Mg\frac{y}{d}dy = \frac15 Mg[\frac{1}{2d}y^2] = \frac{9}{160}Mgd$
where the limits of integration are from $y=\frac34d$ to $0$.

The KE of the chain when the last link slips off the table is therefore
$\frac12MV^2 = (\frac{15}{32}-\frac{9}{160})Mgd$
$V^2=\frac{33}{40}gd$
where V is the velocity at this point.

Alternatively you can apply Newton's 2nd Law :
$F = M\frac{dv}{dt} = M\frac{dv}{dy}\frac{dy}{dt} = -Mv\frac{dv}{dy}$.

When length y remains on the table the force accelerating the chain is $Mg\frac{d-y}{d}$, while the friction force retarding motion is $\frac15Mg\frac{y}{d}$.

The equation of motion is
$-Mv\frac{dv}{dy} = Mg(1-\frac{y}{d}) - \frac15Mg\frac{y}{d} = (1-\frac65\frac{y}{d})Mg$
$2v\frac{dv}{dy} = (2\frac65\frac{y}{d}-2)g$
$v^2 = (\frac65\frac{y^2}{d}-2y)g$.

The limits of integration are $v=0$ to $V$ and $y=\frac34d$ to $0$. So $V^2 = (\frac65(0-\frac{9}{16}d)-2(0-\frac34d))g = \frac{33}{40}gd$.

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    $\begingroup$ We don't normally give fully worked answers to homework like questions... $\endgroup$
    – Floris
    Commented Jun 3, 2016 at 21:49
  • $\begingroup$ @Floris : Is this an official policy or just your personal opinion? If the former, where is it stated? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 4, 2016 at 10:53
  • $\begingroup$ This is clearly stated in the policy under "Why don't you provide a complete answer to homework questions?": "If someone posts an answer to a homework-type question that gives away a complete or near-complete solution, in most cases it will be temporarily deleted." $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented Jun 4, 2016 at 11:03
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the work and effort you put here, I didn't as yet have time to look it over. $\endgroup$
    – Bak1139
    Commented Jun 4, 2016 at 12:43

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