If $A$ and $B$ are fermion operators then the time ordering is defined as \begin{eqnarray} T(AB) = \left\{ \begin{array}{rl} AB, & \mbox{if $B$ precedes $A$}\\ -BA, & \mbox{if $A$ precedes $B$}\end{array}\right. \hspace{2in} (1) \end{eqnarray} On the other hand, the time-ordering operator that arises in the solution of $$i \partial_t U(t,t_0) = H_{_I}(t) U(t,t_0), \hspace{3.1in}$$ as $$U(t,t_0) = T \left[e^{-i \int_{t_0}^t H_{_I}(\tau) d\tau}\right] \hspace{3in} (2) $$ is the usual (bosonic) time-ordering operator even if $H_{_I}$ has fermion fields; we cannot use the definition of time-ordering shown in (1) in the derivation of (2) because introducing a negative sign when the order of fermion operators is flipped messes up the combinatorial counting and will not yield the exponential in (2). (In (2), $U(t,t_0)$ is the unitary evolution operator in the interaction picture and $H_{_I}$ the interaction Hamiltonian.)
So, isn't the definition of time ordering shown in (1) inconsistent with the definition used in (2)? What am I missing?