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What conformal transformation can I make to 2d Minkowski with metric $ds^2=-dt^2+dx^2$ to show that it is conformal to a cylinder?

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  • $\begingroup$ 1. How is this a physics question? 2. What reason do you have to think such a map exists? (I'm not saying it doesn't, but this question is clearly lacking information - are you trying to solve some exercise?) 3. Are you taking about the map from the cylinder to the punctured complex plane that is ubiquitious in conformal field theory? $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented Apr 20, 2016 at 22:52

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I'd say none. If you are talking about a Riemannian cylinder, its metric (say, induced from its embedding in $\Bbb{R}^{3}$) is

$$ g=dz^{2}+d\phi^{2} $$

If the two were conformally equivalent, a conformal transformation $(z,\phi)=(z(t,x),\phi(t,x))$ would pull back the metric as $$ \begin{aligned} g'&=\bigg(\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}dt+\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}dx\bigg)^{2}+\bigg(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}dt+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}dx\bigg)^{2} \\ &= \bigg[\bigg(\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}\bigg)^{2}+\bigg(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}\bigg)^{2}\bigg]dt^{2}+\bigg[\bigg(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\bigg)^{2}+\bigg(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}\bigg)^{2}\bigg]\ dx^{2}+2\bigg[\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}\bigg]\ dtdx \end{aligned} $$ You may choose the transformation in order to give $\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}=0$ or

$$ g'=\bigg[\bigg(\frac{\partial z}{\partial t}\bigg)^{2}+\bigg(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}\bigg)^{2}\bigg]dt^{2}+\bigg[\bigg(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\bigg)^{2}+\bigg(\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x}\bigg)^{2}\bigg]\ dx^{2} $$ but, as you can see, you won't find one that gives you the correct Lorentzian signature. This is because conformal equivalence is an equivalence relation amongst manifolds that carry the same metric signature. A Riemannian cylinder has signature $(+,+)$ while a Lorentzian 2D manifold has signature $(-,+)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ I'm not sure because the question is lacking detail, but I believe OP is implicitly talking about the standard "radial" map in 2D CFT, where a Lorentzian cylinder with coordinates $(\sigma,\tau)$ ($\tau$ as time along the axis, $\sigma$ as spatial coordinate as the angle along the circle) is mapped to the punctured complex plane by $(\sigma,\tau)\mapsto\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}\sigma + \tau}$. $\endgroup$
    – ACuriousMind
    Commented Apr 20, 2016 at 22:50
  • $\begingroup$ If so I'm very sorry, at some point I had imagined that (the answer was too obvious). If the OP confirms that I misunderstood, I'll delete the answer. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 20, 2016 at 22:55
  • $\begingroup$ @ACuriousMind I was just thinking about how this would work. You've explained how you can go from Lorentzian cylinder to Lorentzian punctured plane but I guess this is not good enough since we're missing a point (corresponding to infinity of the cylinder, right?). Also, is this map even invertible? Can I write down a transformation from Lorentzian plane to Lorentzian cylinder? $\endgroup$
    – user11128
    Commented Apr 21, 2016 at 11:22

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