I am trying to derive the Ginzburg-Landau free energy for superconductors, and I follow most of it apart from the introduction on the term containing the magnetic field.
This is the bit I don't understandt, in my notes:
A final part in the free energy is the relevant magnetic field energy density $B_M^2/2\mu_0$, where $B_M=B-B_E$ is due to currents in the superconductor and $B_e$ is due to external sources. (Note that when the material is introduced the total field energy density changes from $B_E^2/2\mu_0$ to $B^2/2\mu_0$, but the part $B_EB_M/\mu_0$ is taken up by the external sources (Waldram, Ch. 6).)
So finally we arrive at the Ginzburg-Landau free energy density:
$$f=\alpha|\psi|^2 + \frac\beta2 |\psi|^4 +\frac{1}{2m} \left| (-i\hbar \nabla +2eA)\psi \right|^2 + \frac{1}{2\mu_0} (B-B_E)^2$$
With just an external field the energy density should be $\frac{1}{2\mu_0}B_E^2$. After the introduction of the material, the total field is now $\mathbf{B} = \mathbf{B_E} + \mathbf{B_M}$ and the energy density is $\frac{1}{2\mu_0}B^2 = \frac{1}{2\mu_0}(\mathbf{B_E}+\mathbf{B_M})^2$.
So the energy added to the system should be their difference, i.e. $$\frac{1}{2\mu_0}(\mathbf{B_E}+\mathbf{B_M})^2 - \frac{1}{2\mu_0}B_E^2 = \frac{1}{2\mu_0}B_M^2 + \frac{1}{\mu_0}\mathbf{B_M}\cdot\mathbf{B_E}.$$
Questions:
Why should I not include the $\frac{1}{\mu_0}\mathbf{B_M}\cdot\mathbf{B_E}$ term, like it is said in the notes? I did have a look on Waldram but still did not get it.
Is $\mathbf{B} = \mathbf{B_E} + \mathbf{B_M}$ the same thing as $\mathbf{B} = \mu_0(\mathbf{H} + \mathbf{M})?$
Is the vector potential $\mathbf{A}$ given by $\mathbf{B} = \nabla \times \mathbf{A}$, i.e. the total field? Or just $\mathbf{B_M} = \nabla \times \mathbf{A}$?